Let us
measure the MTMs and understand where they lead to….FOR BANKS
As we understand in a forward
contract, there are two parties, one is the buyer (party who has taken a long
position) and the other one is the seller (party who takes short position).
When the forward contracts are marked to market, based on the market value /
spot price of the underlying asset, the parties in the forward contracts will
have either Positive MTM or Negative MTM.
Having Positive MTM can be described
as receivables (asset) as on that date and the Negative MTM refers to payables
(Liability). Let us take one forward contract and understand the implications
of the forward contract to Banks.
Current
Date:
|
06.05.2016 (Assumption)
|
Forward price fixed by an Exporter
with the Bank for USD to INR
|
$100,000 (The Bank agrees to buy USD
from an exporter) The exporter agrees to sell $100,000 to the Bank.
|
Forward Contract price
|
$66.00
|
Date of Forward Contract /agreement
|
06.04.2016
|
Date of Delivery
|
06.04.2017
|
Items to be delivered
|
The exporter has to deliver $100,000
to the Bank
|
Place of Delivery
|
OTC contract, at one of the agreed branches
|
Today’s price /( INR / USD quote)
|
Rs68 per USD
|
Today’s MTM for the Bank
|
The MTM is positive by Rs200,000
|
Today’s MTM for the exporter (seller
of the forward contract)
|
The MTM is negative by Rs200,000
|
Risk
for the Bank
|
Counterparty
Credit Risk (The definition of Counterparty Credit Risk) is already discussed
earlier in my blog)
|
What does the positive
MTM for Bank
|
It is receivable for the Bank (An
Asset is created for the Bank – off Balance sheet)
|
Capital Adequacy Guidelines in this
regard
|
|
Let us discuss the risks to the Bank
in this regard..
|
|
1. The exporter may not sell the USD to the Bank
(Because he can sell in the market for Rs68 per USD, instead of selling at Rs66 per USD to Bank)
|
|
2.
This means, the
Bank may lose the Positive MTM (asset impairment)
|
|
3.
By the date of
delivery, there are chances that the exporter’s credit worthiness may also go
down.
|
|
4.
Further
depreciation of Rupee against USD, would lead to increase of positive MTM for
the Bank.
|
|
5.
This implies,
the current exposure of the Bank is Rs200000 and the rupee depreciation may
lead to future exposure of the Bank
|
|
6.
For creating
all types of assets, the Bank has to provide capital. Let us look into the
capital charge in these transactions
|
|
Total
capital charge = (Current Exposure + Potential Future Exposure) x capital adequacy
percentage in the respective country
|
|
ð Current Exposure = Rs200000
|
|
ð Potential future exposure: This is nothing but
likely increase of the MTM of the Bank. The Bank is already having a positive
MTM of Rs200000 and with the depreciation of rupee, the MTM of the Bank may
increase in future
|
|
ð How to compute the Potential Future Exposure (PFE):
Banks use an add – on factor for computing the PFE. For all the forward
contracts having a maturity within 1 year, the Banks use an add-on factor of
1%. This means, the Potential Future Exposure (likely chances of further
positive MTM) is 1% of Notional Amount of the forward contract.
ð Notional amount of forward contract = $100000 x Rs66
= Rs6600000
ð PFE = 1% of Rs6600000
ð PFE = 66000
|
|
ð Total Exposure of the Bank = Current Exposure +
Potential Future Exposure
ð Current Exposure ( Rs200000) + Potential Future
Exposure (Rs66000)
ð Total exposure of the Bank in this Forward Contract
= Rs266000
|
|
ð Capital Charge = 266000 x 9% capital charge
ð Capital
Charge = Rs23940
|
|
LET US NOT DO THE THINGS MECHANICALLY….LET US UNDERSTAND THE
CONCEPTS AND LOGIC BEHIND THE RULE
|
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